> >First of all, Psychology tell us that few criminals have an interest in
> >killing others without a cause. The cause could be money. If the
> victim is
> >unarmed, killing is not necessary, threatening with a weapon usually is
> >enough. In Germany we have a very low rate of Murder, with 381 cases of
> >murder. There were a total of 12.448 cases of weapons usage only as a
> >threat. So you could say that we have a very, very low rate of
> crimes with
> >actual wepaons usage. The crime rate in the US is quite
> different: 1998 ther
> >were 14088 cases of murder.
> I may be having a bad math morning, however considering the
> differing sizes of the populations the numbers don't appear to be
> that dramatically different.
> Germany 1999 est. population 82,087,361
> US 1999 est. Population 272,639,608
> (the above from the CIA WorldFact Book)
> Given the substantially larger population in the U.S. the
> Substantially Larger number of murders appears to be roughly on
> par with the murder rate in Germany.
According to my math, this is:
381 / 82.087.361 = 4,6414E-06 = 0,00046%
12.448 / 272.639.608 = 4,56573E-05 = 0,00457%
This is roughly ten times the number of murders per population. I apologize
for not including this figure. But it should be obvious that there is a huge
difference between the kills/population ratio here and in the US. The
logical question now would be why we have this difference.
The number of murders in the US is from 1998 because the FBI did not publish
the final report for 1999 on the Internet up to now.
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