Kai Becker wrote:
>
> Am Montag, 17. Dezember 2001 01:50 schrieb Robert J. Bradbury:
> >
> > Kai, this is what could be called a "strong assertion". From an
> > Extropian list perspective you have to back up "strong assertions" with
> > facts. How much money did they receive? Whom did they receive it from?
> > What was/is the ratio of U.S. aid to Israel vs. Egypt? What is the level
> > of GDP/individual in Saudi Arabia or Kuwait vs. Isreal, etc.?
>
> Israel Afghanistan Egypt
> Population 6,173,000 22,474,000 69,080,000
> GDP (Mio. US$) 110,331 21,000 96,047
> GDP (US$/person) 18,440 800 3,420
> Development aid (Mio. US$) 906 279 1,579
> Development aid (US$/person) 146.7 12.4 22.8
>
> Development aid does not include money send by foreign workers or so.
>
> My question: When Israel has such a high standard of living (GDP/person)
> and can afford[1] a large military service[2] with modern high-tech
> weapons, why does it receive 6.43 times more development aid per person
> than Egypt and 11.8 times more than Afghanistan? What is paid from this
> money? Food? Houses? Education? Weapons?
Well, for starters, lets first scale everything to a progressive scale
like left wingers are so wont to do when it benefits their arguments:
Israel Afghanistan Egypt
%/capita GDP supplied by aid: <0.85% >1.5% <0.66%
So it seems that the US was providing almost twice as much aid to the
Afghan people as to the people of Israel (note that more than 1/3 of the
citizenship of Israel are muslim arabs). Don't you think that this
demonstrates a significant bias by the US AGAINST the Israeli people and
FOR the Afghan people?
Also note what was left out: Aid to Britain vs. aid to Egypt. The US
gives no development aid to Britain, Australia, New Zealand, the
Falkland Islands, Japan, and many other nations, yet provides all this
aid to Egypt for development. Does this indicate that the US has a bias
for Egypt and against these other nations? If not, why not? That is,
after all, the logic you are using.
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