>From: "Technotranscendence" <neptune@mars.superlink.net>
>Okay, if "all members of a society have the right to
>self[-]determination," then isn't government interference in free
>markets a limitation of that right? After all, free markets are
>just people interacting as they want to interact without third
>party interference -- buying and selling, creating, saving,
>consuming, investing, etc. Any government intervention in the
>process abrogates someone's -- often a whole class of people's --
>right to determine their selves.
First, most markets are not free. Second, groups of members can act
together to influence the market to suit their own position and
therefore the market is also not free.
Limited government can act as a check/balance on both of these.
>If you think then there should be some limit on this "right to
>self[-]determination," where is it? How do we know what it is in
>any particular case?
A more difficult issue and without a current easy answer. Limiting
the ability of individuals to alter the market is a good start.
Brian
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