> But the statistics I've read for Argentina show a continued
> increase in income concentration on behalf of the 10% or so
> of the population that forms the upper class.
Can you also claim that the increase in *concentration* among
the upper clase takes place without the other classes actually
becoming better off (in real terms) too?
(Uhhh, as with a number of my questions, I don't mean them to
be necessarily making a point---I want to mainly learn something.)
Dehede011@aol.com (Ron h.) writes in response to Carlos:
> Please allow me to nit pick or quibble with your conclusions. I
> believe if you read The Bell Curve by Herrnstein and Murray
> you will find out they contend that another force is at play.
> Our world wide economy is increasingly high tech and pays a
> premium for excellence and intelligence.
I claim that an *increase* in the *concentration* of top-class
wealth is a positive sign, because (I also claim) it is so
historically well-correlated with general advances in society
and richer economies.
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