Here's the "B1 digit = 1" argument based on the rule by
which we grade the value of a 1 in a given Bn column:
number
columns 3 2 1
Base 10: 10^2 10^1 10^0
100 10 1
------------------
1 1 1 = one hundred and eleven
Base 2: 2^2 2^1 2^0
4 2 1
-----------------
1 1 1 = seven
Base 1: 1^2 1^1 1^0
1 1 1
-----------------
1 1 1 = three
So this says that the B1 system assigns the value of just
1 to any 1 appearing in any column, hence 1111 = 4(B10).
Seems logical, but then here's the "B1 digit = 0" case:
B10 = 0123456789
B5 = 01234
B2 = 01
B1 = 0
And in this case we would say that Bn = (n - 1), which
is to say that in B10, the highest number is 10 - 1 = 9,
and therefore, in B1 the highest number is 1 - 1 = 0.
This case seems as logical as the opposite case for 1.
Is it that 0 (as just a placeholder) = 1? After all,
when we say "Base 2" and the two numbers of B2 are
0 and 1, we are assigning the value of 1 to the
0 and 2 to the 1... right? Is this paradoxical?
I think it's that 0 = 1 number = 1 tally mark.
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VISIT Ian Williams Goddard ----> http://www.erols.com/igoddard
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REV. ROGER WILLIAMS ---> http://www.erols.com/igoddard/roger.htm
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