Re: Private Property and Capitalism
Thu, 17 Oct 1996 18:42:22 -0400

snip: Michael Wiik
>Doesn't most real estate property derive (at some point in the past) from
a coercive takeover of the land? If the King of France bequeaths to some
nobleman some land (which the King obtained & maintained by coercion), does
the nobleman's descendents hundreds of years down the line have a real
right to the property? I asked this a couple of years ago, but never got
what I considered a satisfactory response.

... and chances are that you won't. Unless it is of the type Twirlip of
Greymist gave, which states that is sucks and is undesirable, but
neccessary. Or the type that Sarash Naidu states, that it sucks and must be
abolished. There is a huge grey area in this question that goes way beyond
the field of economics (ethics; individual epistomology). I ask these kinds
of questions too, and most often get ignored, ostensibly because of my aol
address, or I am not academically up to par, but perhaps more truthfully
because there aren't any *simple* answers...


PS. If I had the complex answers... ie: if i could start arguing for one
side (leftist anarchist or laissez-faire) perhaps I could join the debate,
and join the endless feed back loop -and have the dubious privelidge of being