> At 08:34 PM 11/16/97 +0000, Wolfkin wrote:
>
> >it follows that the infinity of the integers is equal to half of
> >itself. Therefore the whole argument must be wrong.
>
> Of *course* the infinity of integers is equal to half itself. What *else*
> could possibly be the case?
>
> There's a century of mathematics dealing with this topic. I'm entranced to
> find people starting again from scratch. Next we could have a heated
> debate about whether parallel lines meet. :)
Um...ok. :) You doubt that they do?
Wolfkin.