Re: Infinities

Damien Broderick (damien@ariel.ucs.unimelb.edu.au)
Mon, 17 Nov 1997 16:31:37 +0000


At 08:34 PM 11/16/97 +0000, Wolfkin wrote:

>it follows that the infinity of the integers is equal to half of
>itself. Therefore the whole argument must be wrong.

Of *course* the infinity of integers is equal to half itself. What *else*
could possibly be the case?

There's a century of mathematics dealing with this topic. I'm entranced to
find people starting again from scratch. Next we could have a heated
debate about whether parallel lines meet. :)

Damien Broderick