> But you do cite a difference between Dan's
> atomism and Ian's holism, which is that:
>
> "[atomists believe] that particles may have
> independent properties *within a single
> reference frame*, ie in relation to zero."
>
> How does A have an "independent property"
> with respect to the property it acquired
> from 0? If A acquires the property of A
> from 0, then A has no independent property.
>
> Please evidence an independent property of A.
I was referring to properties of A-0 which are independent of B-0; I was
not asserting that there were properties independent of 0.