Re: Gender in language

Warrl kyree Tale'sedrin (
Wed, 25 Mar 1998 01:30:25 +0000

> From: (Damien R. Sullivan)

> On Mar 24, 4:29pm, "Kathryn Aegis" wrote:
> > Kick Graybull:
> > textbooks were making up facts. Up until partway through 16c English
> > relied upon Germanic grammatical structures until a few
> > cultural heavyweights on the British islands decided that enlightened
> > and civilized humans spoke Latin, and therefore set up new
> > grammatical rules for English that relied upon Latin grammatical
> I don't think heavyweights can change grammar like that. More importantly,
> English grammar doesn't resemble Latin very much. German probably resembles
> Latin more. What I've read is that our grammar resembles that of the
> Scandinavian languages more than anything else, a result of living with the
> Danes for a few centuries; apparently the Scandinavian tongues split off from
> Germanic in grammar, although I don't know whether English adoped Scand.
> grammar or whether the current system is a bastard of Old English and Old
> Danish.
> English has often been _taught_ based on the Latin model, which may be where
> the 'heavyweights' come in, and which probably gave grammar a bad name in
> English, precisely because it didn't apply.

For example, the rule "don't end a sentence with a preposition".

And Churchill's classic reply: "That is a rule up with which I will
not put."

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