Re: Sex, authority, and social norms

Yak Wax (
Wed, 11 Feb 1998 12:59:21 -0800 (PST)

Kathryn Aegis wrote:

> To the contrary, if one plans to turn the course of current
> psychological theory, one would have to provide some hard data
> to support a new position, such as a study or a critical
> analysis of present theory. If you are able to provide that
> type of evidence, then your case for pedophila would merit
> consideration. My position at this time is that I have not
> yet seen such evidence, either in my own research or in the
> postings on this thread.

So I can presume from this message that there is no evidence to
support your claims. So granted it has no scientific basis we need to
find a rational way of looking at the current situation. Let's have a
look at current theory:

Their exists an age above which a child matures to a point where he or
she is 'emotionally ready' to have a sexual relationship. How this
age is determined I am unsure, and you (despite repeated requests)
have yet to explain this. But in order for there to be a way of
proving such an age exists, we need to prove the following points:

Children mature at the same rate - However, I'll let this one slide
since having a "round about" age of consent is purely for reasons of
ease of enforcement.

Emotional Readiness is not a product of social trends, it can be
proven to exist in a society that does not believe in "emotional
readiness" and it can be measured. How?

A force other than a society that believes the 'crime' to be 'wrong'
creates emotional trauma. If so would you mind telling me what this
force is?

If society did not believe this 'crime' to be wrong, the victim would
still suffer emotional trauma because they were not emotionally ready.
And that emotional readiness and need for emotional readiness is not
a product of social trends.

However, there exists no evidence to prove the existence of a specific
age at which a person is emotionally ready. There exists no research
to find the cause of the emotional trauma (a victim's emotional trauma
must, for you case to be sound, be caused by the perpetrator and not
the societal "shunning" which occurs after the crime.) The current
theory has (from what you have led me to believe) no grounding in
science, and is purely based on opinion.

Added to this, different countries/cultures have different opinions of
the subject of emotional readiness. Thus, the idea is not objective
and is purely subjective. Countries that have a lower 'age of
consent' and a more open attitude to sex/sexuality generally have less
problems (emotional or otherwise) regarding sexual behaviour. And
countries with no age of consent have no paedophilic crime at all!

So prove these right and I'll be willing to except your "current
theory" (although perhaps not as religiously as you have.)

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