> Suppressing sex drive has been associated with suppressing other human
> drives? Also, I'd like to know what the possible treatments are for a person
> (male - if that's relevant) who has NEVER had a sex drive but would like to
> change that.
In general, Sherry, the inhibition of one "drive" (i.e. the frustration of one need) leads to the hypertrophy of one or more other "drives" in an evidently compensatory way. If you know this person, does he exibit this behavior? If not, how does this deficit become observable other than verbally? This is equivalent to asking you "why do you believe him?.