# Re: Y2K: Am I paranoid?

Ian Goddard (*Ian@Goddard.net*)

*Fri, 12 Feb 1999 13:46:08 -0500*

Hi Ron,

Check this out, I ran into a quick and dirty
explanation of why 0^0 = 1 from a math whiz:

"In a similar manner I used to believe 0^0 was undefined. I mean if there

is disagreement over it's value, shouldn't it be undefined? Again by
reading the axiomatic development of set theory, I now believe that 0^0
should be 1, because there is indeed 1 function from the empty set to the
empty set, namely the empty function."

Strange, so I guess the number 1 is then a measure
of the number of functions that occur. ?

BTW, saw and gave a quick initial read of your
Article 23 reply, I hope your right! but will
see if I can sustain my stated reading. A law
is only as good as whatever can be logically
read into it, well, obviously.