Prof. Gomes (profgomes@geocities.com)
Wed, 14 Jan 1998 14:17:53

>At 00:15 13/01/98 +0000, you wrote:
>...................
>>Philosopher Nozick mentions the following argument in one of his
>>books (Philosophical Explanations 1981): There are infinitely many
>>ways for there to be something, but only one way for there to be
>>nothing. Therefore, assuming each way is equally probable, the
>>probability that there is something equals 1.
>>
>>
>>________________________________________________
>>Nick Bostrom
>>n.bostrom@lse.ac.uk
>>
>> *Visit my transhumanist web site*
>> http://www.hedweb.com/nickb
>>
>
>
>I would like to comment the following about Mr. Nozick's affirmation:
>
>
>First: an infinite set of *discrete* events, can never be equiprobable,
>since sum(p)=1. So any individual p=1/n >>> when n=oo...p=0...and
>
>Second: If we consider (continuous) probability distribuction function
>(p.d.f.'s) modelling,
>any individual point has correspondent probability zero... non-zero prob's
>arises just for intervals... So, Mr. Nozick's, maybe involuntarily, also
>affirmed :
>
>The ways for there to be something are not just infinite but also
>CONTINUOUS... (or it denies quantum theory...or a quantum universe would be
>just a subset of the whole complete universe ??? >>> it is better not
>taking philosophical wanders very seriously... :-) )
>
>Last: Since the probability that there is _nothing_ is zero, a question
>arises>> nothing: exists or not ??? ( I always laugh a lot with certain
>philosophical questions... just based on NOZICK's affirmative, such
>question has no sense... )
>
>
>Gomes.
>FMHPV ( from my humble point of view...)
>
>