Re: Bell's inequality

Omega (
Sat, 01 Feb 1997 21:50:56 -0800


> >>Steve Witham :
> >>Isn't Bell's inequality derived correctly from QM as we know it?
> >Omega :
> >Yes, a totally correct result of orthodox theory.
> If Bell's inequality was derived from Quantum Mechanics then modern Physics
> would be in big trouble because Bell's Inequality is wrong.

You are correct. It is the violation of Bell's inequality that is derived from
orthodox QM. I should be more precise in my writings.

> If took over 20 years for somebody to convincingly perform the very difficult
> experiment that Bell suggested, but when they did, Bell's inequality was
> violated. This does not prove that Quantum Mechanics is the last word on the
> subject, but it does prove that all local hidden variable theories are wrong.

It proves no such thing if microcausality is temporally bidirectional, which
is what relativistically correct quantum mechanics tells us anyway. We really
can't keep ignoring that second order differential equation with respect to
time that is necessary for any relativistically correct formulation of QM.

In the Ecstatic Service of Life -- Omega