Re: post-renaissance terminology

From: phil osborn (philosborn@hotmail.com)
Date: Wed Jan 26 2000 - 21:24:55 MST


>From: "Matthew Gream" <matthew.gream@pobox.com>>Subject: post-renaissance
>terminology
>Date: Sun, 23 Jan 2000 14:04:26 -0000
>
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>Here's a question:
>
>I am currently taking a class and about to present some ideas about the
>development of western society in its quest for reality, specifically as it
>relates to the epoch of the renaissance, and the current epoch of the
>neo-renaissance.
>
>If the middle ages can be referred to as a 'god centered' view of the
>world,
>and the renaissance can be referred to as a 'human centered' view of the
>world, then what term is used to describe emerging phase of society ?
>Matthew.>- --
>matthew.gream@pobox.com
>Cambridge_UK/2000

Actually, the distinguishing philosophical characteristic that both
separates the West and explains its success is "objectivity." No other
significant culture developed it and most other cultures have had great
difficulty integrating it as they attempt to keep up or "Westernize." Why
is it that the West developed - the scientific method, the jury trial, the
common law, democracy - and made stunning successes of them all? Because we
Westerners all believe, deep down, in our cultural roots, that there is ONE
reality, that we can figure it out if we have the right data and methods,
and that anyone else can replicate our results. NO other major culture
starts from that proposition.
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